This section is designed to stimulate greater inquiry and awareness. The themes and principles addressed will not be covered in detail. As additional information and knowledge becomes available, this section will be updated and corrected. Many religious leaders may ignore the themes and principles presented here because they are not "politically correct." They also do no fit into Western ideology but they are definately Judeo-Christian and Islamic in nature.

Once you have read the Torah, Bible and Qu'ran you will understand that the fundamental theme is to follow God's commandments, worship Him and submit to Him. In Christianity, the most important doctrine is to accept Yahshua of Nazareth as salvation for sins. God's wrath falls upon the people or society in cases of consistent resistance to the command to worship God and follow His commandments. If you are someone who has not been convinced one way or another that the Torah, Bible or Qu'ran are the works of God and you are trying to reconcile the authenticity of these books and passages, then you may want to consider that one of the most effective way to identify whether a commandment is authentic or not is to read for themes and principles between the Torah, Bible and Qu'ran. Themes and principles are difficult to fabricate. By process of elimination, one can determine the confidence level that may be placed on any one book or all three books. After a certain amount of investigation and confidence building by confirmation of themes and principles of scriptural passages, you may have to take a leap of faith in order to accept any one of these books or all three of these books as divine and from God.

This page is dedicated to unusual themes, principles and passages of the Torah, Bible and Qu'ran from the perspective of a Western mind. Keep in mind, when anything seems "unusual" it is because you are not socialized into the "unusual" principles. So, as you read this page, ask yourself, are the themes and principles of the Torah, Bible or Qu'ran "unusual" or are you "unusual." Why ask this question? because if after your investigation, you decide that one of these books or all three of these books are from God, then obviously, you have no alternative but to conclude that you are "unusual" or socialized outside of the social norms and behaviour as ordained by the Creator.

It is advised that you read the Special Report first before reviewing this section since the Special Report provides some additional context that you should be aware of. If you are already reviewing the Special Report, please note that certain hyperlinks on this page reference back to specific sections of the Special Report. Please note that we use the Name of God, Yahweh, as it was communicated in the Torah. Both Christianity and Islam confirm the Torah. Be sure to understand the "red flags" identified in the Qu'ran as a result of this investigation by reviewing, "Yahweh's Commandments."

Does Yahweh Outlaw Charging of Interest?

Is charging of interest outlawed by Yahweh in the Bible? Here is the Bible verse which outlaws interest, Exodus 22:25 (NIV), Leviticus 25:35-38, Deut 23:19-20, Here are the Qu'ran verses that outlaw charging interest, Surah 2:275, Surah 2:276, Surah 4:161.

Usury is charging interest and is outlawed by Yahweh. Our current man-made laws extend usury to meaning "excessive" interest. This, of course, is against the law of Yahweh. Yahweh forbade the use of any interest. Yahweh clearly states that charging interest robs men of their wealth and he will not bless it (Ezekiel 22:12, Ezekiel 18:12-13). No one in society can escape interest today and whenever there is a potential change in the prime interest rate by the Federal Reserve, the whole economy reacts like a roller-coaster, effecting individual wealth and earnings.

There is an exception in the Bible. It is allowed for Israelites to charge interest to non-Israelites or Gentiles (Deut 23:20). That is, Believers and worshippers of Yahweh were allowed to charge interest to non-Believers and pagan societies. The Gentiles were the pagan societies surrounding Israel that worshipped idols. Christianity claims that when one accepts Christ, one is a part of the "spiritual" Israel. Similarly, Moslem belief is that through acceptance of Islam, all men are brought under God's Law. In light of this, it appears that all Jews and Gentiles are now under the Law of God in either case. As a result no man is to charge interest to another man. Obviously, our economic system is interest-based, in direct conflict with God's Law in the context of Judaism, Christianity and Islam.

Caution: There are two verses in the "New" Testament that imply that charging of interest is within the law of God. Those two verses are Matthew 25:26-27 and Luke 19:22-23. Is this a contradiction in scripture? If it is, the verses in the "New" Testament has to be accepted as a fabrication or mis-translation or mis-translation of bias. However, if we take the verses in the context of the Torah, then we recognize that the Messiah speaks of charging of interest within the law of the Torah. The law says an Israelite may charge interest to a non-Israelite. (rev 11/27/2000)

Does Yahweh Ordain More Than One Wife and Concubines (slave-girl wives)? Does Yahweh Outlaw Homosexuality and Adultery?

Marry more than one wife and concubines?

Prophets and other men of the Bible such as Abraham, Ishmael, Jacob (Israel), King David, and King Solomon all had more than on wife and slave-girl wives at the same time. Adam, Noah, Isaac and Joseph were exceptions and married one wife. The prophet Abraham had three wives, Sarah, Hagar, Keturah, (Gen 25:1, 1 Chron 1:32, Genesis 25:5-6, see home page) plus more concubines (Gen 25:6). Prophet Abraham himself married his "sister" but not of his mother. That is, he married the daughter of his father's other wife (Genesis 20). This marriage by Abraham may or may not have been acceptable according to the laws given by God in the book of Leviticus concerning sexual relations. Investigate this for yourself because these laws were given generations later at Mt. Sinai to Moses. Ishmael had three or more wives, Jacob had four wives (Genesis 32:22, Genesis 35:22-26), King David had three or more wives and concubines (1 Samuel 27:3, 1 Samuel 30:5, 2 Samuel 5:13, 2 Samuel 12:24) etc. King Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines per scripture (1 Kings 11:1-6). Notice that out of Israel's 4 wives came the children known as the "12 tribes of Israel." Out of the four wives, two were "concubines or maidservants" and four of the twelve tribes came from these two maidservants. Want to learn more? just search the word "wives," "wife," "concubine" and "concubines" and you will see that many took wives and concubines up to the double-digits (10-20 wives). This is easy to find out, just read the first two books of the Bible, the Book of Genesis and the Book of Exodus. Based on Bible scripture, Yahweh ordains (approves of) having multiple wives and concubines at the same time. Also in Isaiah 4:1-2, the scriptures speak of a day when seven women will take a hold of one man for marriage. Has this prophecy been fulfilled or is the "day" the Day of the Lord (1,000 year Millennial Reign).

Sometimes those who profess to be "Christian" denounce Islam because they argue that "Muhammad had many wives." Unfortunately those who say this do not know their own scriptures. Per the Qu'ran, having more than one wife is allowed if they can be treated equally and fairly, Surah 4:3. The Quran confirms the Bible is this regard. Note that succeeding Islamic kings had many wives too.

A popular "Christian" view is that having more than one wife was not intended from the beginning and it is based on the premise that there was one couple in the beginning- Adam and Eve. Using this logic, it could be argued that it is OK for a brother and sister to marry and have children since the children of Adam and Eve had to procreate with each other for obvious reasons. The premise above is weak in light of express, implied and symbolic scripture of Bible that indicate the authorization by God for man to have more than one wife.

In the Laws given to Moses on Mt. Sinai, in the section addressing sexual relations (Leviticus 18:1-24) there is no mention of a single law that disallows a man from marrying more than one wife. There are no laws barring a man to "uncover the nakedness of more than one wife at a time." Also, there is no law barring a wife of a man from "uncovering the nakedness" of the man's other wives. As a matter of fact, a single law addresses an inheritance issue when a man has more than one wife (Deuteronomy 21:15-17). There are exceptions. In the Bible, a man is limited to one wife if he is an Overseer, Deacon or Elder (1 Timothy 3:1-13, Titus 1:6) and discouraged from taking many wives if he is a King (Deuteronomy 17:14-20). Note that King Solomon broke this law by having 1,000 wives but was never rebuked by God for this. However, God rebuked Solomon for marrying idolatrous wives who were non-Israelite. These wives led King Solomon astray into IDOLATRY- the breaking of the first and greatest commandment. Yahweh warns Israel of this potential problem about their Kings in Deuteronomy 17:14-18.

It is interesting to note that scripture of the Bible does not reveal God rebuking King Solomon as he marries his wives because King Solomon was in essence breaking the law of Deut 17:14-20. When God remained silent on this issue, was this an authorization by Yahweh for King Solomon to marry many, many wives? Keep in mind that in the Law of the Torah, when a Husband does not rebuke his wife and remains silent when she makes a covenant with God, that commitment is confirmed. In this scenario, God appears to be silent about the law of Deut 17:14-20 when King Solomon breaks it. What is the significance of this? In Bible scripture, God is symbolized as the husband. God's people are symbolized as the virgin bride. In the case of Solomon's marriage to more than one wife, the Husband (God) remains silent about rebuking the wife's (Solomon's) marriage covenants. Investigate this on your own, and verify that King Solomon was not rebuked by God as we have noted. There is another theme about a King and the number 1,000. This theme is Yahshua the Messiah and His 1,000 year reign. Is there a significance to this?

NOTE: The concept of celibacy in scripture of the Bible is introduced in a statement attributed to Apostle Paul in (1 Corinthians 7:1, 1 Corinthians 7:8, 1 Corinthians 7:27). This statement appears to be out of place and an apparent contradiction because Apostle Paul later states that women shall be atoned for sins by "child bearing" (1 Timothy 2:11). In addition Yahweh commands His creation to "be fruitful and multiply" (Genesis 9:7). This in essence is a command to marry and have children, and therefore does not agree with 1 Corinthians 7:1, 7:8 and 7:27 at first glance. But, Apostle Paul does state that it is better to marry than to stay single and "burn with desire." Apostle Paul also acknowledges in 1 Corinthians 7:25 that it is his own opinion that one should not marry, "Now about virgins: I have no command from the Lord, but I give a judgment as one who by the Lord's mercy is trustworthy." What appeared at first glance to be a contradiction in scripture is resolved because Apostle Paul tells the reader that it is HIS OWN OPINION to stay single. Therefore, the principle of marriage according to Yahweh remains consistent.

Is the statement by Apostle Paul, symbolic or a prophecy? It is interesting to note that Yahshua Messiah states in Luke 20:34-38, Mark 12:24-25, Matt 22:30, that after the resurrection, in the next age, that men and women will not be married or given in marriage. What is the significance of this in light of Apostle Paul's statements? (Rev 11/27/2000).

Homosexuality

Homosexuality among men is expressly outlawed in the Qu'ran and Bible. Lesbianism among women is expressly outlawed in the Bible. Here are two verses from the Quran, Surah 7:81, Surah 11:82. Here are two verses from the Bible, Genesis 19:5, Genesis 19:24. Leviticus 8:22-23 reads, "Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable. Do not have sexual relations with an animal and defile yourself with it. A woman must not present herself to an animal to have sexual relations with it; that is a perversion."

Here is a related passage from the Bible addressing homosexuality and lesbianism, Romans 1:26-27. It is interesting to note that a similar passage of scripture has not been identified in the sexual relation laws in Leviticus 8 explicitly outlawing women to women sexual relationships. Investigate this some more as to why the "New" Testament addresses lesbianism but not in the "Old" Testament. The Qu'ran does not explicitely outlaw women to women sexual relationships. The theme is clear when considering the Qu'ran and Bible that homosexuality among males is outlawed per scripture.

Together these verses confirm that the story of Sodom and Gomorrah and the destruction of these towns with burning sulfur from the sky is about God's judgement on male homosexuality. The remains of those cities can be seen today. Check out the video from Wyatt Archaelogical Research named, "Discovered, Sodom and Gomorrah." Locate their link in our Special Report main commentary.

Adultery & the Consummation of Marriage

Adultery is outlawed. We need not explain this one because it is one of the Ten Commandments and also addressed in the sexual relation laws in Leviticus 8.

You will find that consummation of a marriage in the Bible and Qu'ran is the act of sex. This act is proceeded by the giving of a gift to the woman and her father. That's it. This is marriage per the Bible and Qu'ran, there is no differentiation between the books in regards to this principle. So if a man has sex with a woman, this is outright marriage. One who is not familiar with the Bible may expect to read about a traditional "Church" marriage but you will find that nothing like this exists in scripture of the Bible.

If you don't believe it read the Bible and Qu'ran- don't take a priest's word for it, or allow yourself to be mis-lead by casual observation of "Christian" or "Islamic" marriage customs. Exodus 22:16 (KJV) reads, "And if a man entice a maid that is not betrothed, and lie with her, he shall surely endow her to be his wife." The man in this case had sexual intercourse with a woman that is not pledged to be married and God says that this man must marry her. As a result, we can conclude that in a casual sexual relationship, the couple is spiritually married in the eyes of the Creator upon the act of sex. Therefore a casual sexual relationship with multiple partners is the act of getting married and committing adultery on a perpetual scale.

Still having trouble with the principle that sex is marriage? Let's take a look at "New" Testament verses. Yahshua Messiah in Matthew 5:31-32 confirms the principle above, he states, "It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.' But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery." In this case, the woman is "divorced" on paper. Yet, the Messiah clearly states that she is committing adultery if she marries again, and the person marrying her is committing adultery. The reason is, she is still spiritually married to the first husband because of her act of having sex with him even though she is "divorced" on paper. Related verses may be found in Matthew 19:3-9, Mark 10:4-12. The only exception where the couple is freed from marriage is in the case of marital infidelity, and in the case where one is not a Believer of the scriptures and leaves (1 Corinthians 7:12-13). Want to do some investigation on your own? just search the word "divorce" in the scriptures.

Another set of verses that support the principle that the act of sex is marriage can be found in the law concerning rape. This may shock you but the law in the Torah states that a woman who is raped must marry the man who raped her. Keep in mind that the word "rape" must be considered in context of the time and culture. In any case, the minimum requirement is the act of forcing sex upon an unwilling woman. Deuteronomy 22:28 states, "If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, he shall pay the girl's father fifty shekels of silver. He must marry the girl, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives." There is a two-fold principle here. The first princpile is that sex is the consummation of marriage. That's why the rapist had to marry the woman he raped without the privilege of divorce. The principle that sex is marriage is greater in weight than the principle to punish for rape. The bottom-line is sex is marriage and marriage is held in very high regards.

The second principle, if you pay close attention to the language, is a woman is NOT EQUAL, according to Western definition of equality, to a man under Yahweh's Laws. Even in the case of rape, a man loses his privilege of divorce. Be sure to understand that a woman does not have the right of divorce per the language of either Bible or Qu'ranic scripture. An exception to the rule that a man must marry the woman he rapes is in Deuteronomy 22:25. In this verse, if the woman is already pledged to be married and is raped by a strange man. In this case the rapist receives the death penalty because the woman he raped was pledged to be married. The rapist in this case committed adultery by force. The penalty for adultery by two consenting persons was death for both partners, Leviticus 20:10. In this case the Law recognizes the woman was not a consenting partner and is a wife.

You may even hear in the news about Islamic countries that uphold this law which requires a raped woman to marry her rapist such as Egypt. We have heard professing Christians denounce Islam and Muhammed because of this law being enforced in Islamic states. This is obviously not the invention of the prophet Muhammed. No, this is a fundamental principle of the Bible and the root of this law lies right in the Torah. Moses knew and followed these laws and so did the Messiah, Yahshua of Nazareth. As a matter of fact, it is the Law of Yahshua of Nazareth for He is Yahweh in the Flesh in accordance with Biblical doctrine.

In light of the Biblical and Qu'ranic laws, isn't interesting then that under U.S. Law, and most Western law, having multiple wives is outlawed but homosexuality is increasingly allowed? Adultery is looked upon as a sport, casual sexual relationships is the norm, and pornography now includes women having sex with animals? (rev 11/27/2000)

Special Note on Divorce: The language of the scripture of the Bible and Qu'ran overwhelmingly reveals that it is the man who can divorce and not the woman. Search the word "divorce" - here are a few examples verses, Deut 22:19,29; Deut 24:1,3; Isaiah 50:1; Jeremiah 3:8; Matt 1:19; Matt 5:31. Interestingly enough, there is one passage in the "New" Testament of the Bible, 1 Corinthians 7:13, where the language used expressly indicates the woman being given the right of divorce. In consideration of all the other passages relating to divorce and after consideration of other passages addressing the principle of the wife's requirement for obedience to her husband, this passage in 1 Corinthians 7:13 seems out of place. Interestingly enough this passage deals with a divorce issue when the HUSBAND in the marriage is a NON-BELIEVER of the scriptures. This in essence confirms the principle that Yahweh, God, regards those who believe in Him and follow Him above those who do not. Another principle being applied here is that the act of not worshipping Yahweh, God is a type of adultery. That is why the married couple is able to divorce. In light of this the principle that the HUSBAND is the only one who retains the right of divorce stands when both husband and wife are believers of the scriptures. The language used 1 Corinthians 7:11 also appears to suggest a woman is allowed to divorce the husband, again, this passage seems out of place. But, notice the passage is presented along with passages addressing divorce in the case of a Believer and Non-Believer marriage. Out of the context of the rest of the scriptures, this passage may be taken as giving a believing woman the right to divorce a believing man, but in the context of the themes and principles of the whole of scriptures, the right of a believing woman to divorce a believing man apparently does not exist.

Does Yahweh Ordain Women Unequal to Men?

Yes, it's true ladies, if you read the Torah, Bible and the Qu'ran, the overwhelming theme is that women are not equal to men in light of the way we think of equality today. This does not mean that a woman is to be treated unfairly. It is clear per scripture of the Bible and Qu'ran that women are to be treated with respect, dignity, love and fairness by their husbands. They are to be treated with respect by other men. Again, if you don't believe us, read the Torah, Bible and Qu'ran. The theme that women are not equal to men is pervasive. One could try to argue the Western view that women are equal to men by taking a limited number of passages from the Bible that show the importance of women and magnifying the passages so they appear to be dominating themes and principles. However be cautious because if you take the time to read the scriptures of the Bible and Qu'ran from font to back, page by page, it is evident that a woman's role is not equal to man but to be a helper of man (Genesis 2:18-23).

In Timothy 2:11 Apostle Paul states, "A woman should learn in quietness and full submission. I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must be silent. For Adam was formed first, then Eve. And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner. But women will be saved through childbearing--if they continue in faith, love and holiness with propriety." Other related passage are 1 Corinthians 11:2-16, Colossans 3:18-19, Ephesians 5:22-33, 1 Corinthians 14:33-35. We provide a few passage here as examples, but you cannot deny the theme throughout the Torah, Bible and Qu'ran that women are not equal to men. Even the list of descendents in the Torah lists only names of men, not women. Also pay close attention to divorce. A divorce may only be executed by a man. You will find this is true if you pay close attention to the use of language in both the Bible and Qu'ran. One example is in Deuteronomy 24:1-4. (rev 10/7/2000).

Another set of verses which confirms the theme that man is superior to women in the eyes of God is in the Torah section of the Bible, Numbers 30:1-16. These verses commands that when a wife makes a covenant with God, the husband has the right to nullify this covenant within a certain period of time. This verse obviously shows the importance of the husbands authority over the wife per Bible standards because the husband is given authority by God to nullify a covenant by his wife WITH GOD.

When considering that women are not equal to men per theme of the Torah, Bible and Qu'ran, care must be taken as to the context of the unequality. The question must be asked: is it in the context of family, society or a combination of both? The Torah, Bible and Qu'ran are clear in the context of family and religious leadership that women are not equal to men but how about in society? such as employment, social relations, ownership of property, etc. In this respect, the Torah, Bible and Qu'ran need to be investigated some more. Based on recollection, it is clear that both men and women are to be working. The Torah, Bible and Qu'ran give women rights to their own personal property aside from the husband. Be careful not to assume and investigate scripture some more on your own.

Scripture reveals that God is hierarchical. If you listen to some of Benny Hinn's television ministry presentations, he confirms that God is hierarchical. Benny Hinn is a preacher in a very popular Christian television ministry on the Trinity Broadcast Network. We have noticed key distinct hierarchies in Creation. First are the prophets and messengers of God, next comes man who are Believers of Yahweh, next comes women who are Believers of Yahweh, then the Angels (created from light), and if you include the Qu'ran, then the Jinn (unseen beings created from fire per the Qu'ran-satan is a Jinn per the Qu'ran).

Man has dominion over all the animal kingdom. Observation of the animal kingdom itself shows hierarchies. Per the Torah, Bible and Qu'ran, the only time man has dominion over man is in the context of Believers versus non-believers. A Believer would be any man or woman who observes the Torah, Bible or Qu'ran. Professing Christians may not admit it or publicly acknowledge it or may not even be aware of it, but, yes, the theme of Believers having legal control over non-believers is pervasive in the Bible. More on this in a following section.

Does Yahweh Make Certain Meat Unlawful?

Why do both Jews and Moslems observe scriptural law which prohibits the consumption of pig meat or meat of swine? And why do most professing Christians accept the eating of pig meat or swine as lawful per scripture?

Despite the popular belief and practice which allows Christians to eat pork meat, the Bible commands not to eat pork. It was spelled out in the Law given to Moses by Yahweh, (Leviticus 11:1-46). Yahshua Messiah said in a famous passage in Mathew that not one word or stroke of a pen will pass from the law until all is fulfilled (Mathew 5:17-20). Is eating swine meat within the Law? It is understood that Christ was a Jew and he never consumed pork otherwise he would have broken the Law and sinned, making him a less than perfect Lamb of God. Pork was possibly introduced as lawful into Christianity as pagan practices polluted the religion. See YNCA.com and related sites in the Special Report for more detail.

There is a single verse in the "New" Testament in a vision by Peter that may be used as the piece of scripture allowing the consumption of all foods (Acts 10:9-16, 11:4-10). This was a vision given to Peter of animals that were rolled out on a carpet from heaven both defined as clean and unclean per scripture of the Torah and God tells Peter to "eat." This verse is a clear contradiction of scripture of the Torah outlawing eating of meat that is unclean such as meat of swine. So is this verse a fabrication, mis-translation or mis-translation of bias? If you look at this verse closer in the context of subsequent verses and the context of the Torah, the meaning of the verse becomes quite clear. There is no fabrication here, nothing is mis-translated either by mistake or by bias, but instead this verse has been taken grossly out of context. Why? because if one reads a little further to Acts 10:17-36 the dream of Peter is explained and interpreted. The meaning of the dream was about telling Peter that the Gentiles are now "clean" and that Jews and Gentiles are one under Christ. In conclusion, those who use the "carpet vision" as an excuse to eat pig meat are taking the scripture out of context. Want more support? read Acts 15:19. James is basically saying that the Apostles should write to the Gentiles and tell them to abstain from "food polluted by idols, from sexual immorality, from the meat of strangled animals and from blood." The verses clearly show that James is referring to the sexual relations laws and clean/unclean meat laws in the Torah in the Book of Leviticus. Investigate some more in the Special Report.

It's obvious that the Christian community is divisive on how to handle the "carpet vision" verse. Many professing Christians claim that Matthew 5:17-20 commands that the Law given to Moses is to be observed, but other professing Christians proclaim that "grace" or Christ abolished the Law of Moses. After 700 hundred hours of investigation from April 1999 to October 2000, it is clear why the Christian community is so divisive on many "New" Testament verses and the interpretation of meaning. Unless the scriptures of the "New" Testament are understood and read in the context of the Torah, there is no way the meaning of "New" Testament scripture can be understood.

An unusual discovery in light of the Qu'ran

Why is pork unlawful? First, consider these Surahs: Surah 2:65, Surah 5:60, Surah 7:166.

We have always wondered why the Jewish and Islamic religions outlaw pork. One logical and secular explanation that is widely accepted in Judaism and Islam is that pork meat contained a lot of parasites, and if uncooked properly, the parasites enter the body and cause disease. The other commonly accepted reason why Yahweh outlawed swine meat is that it is his commandment, period.

Did Yahweh make pork an unlawful meat because of parasites or because it was a commandment to be obeyed to test His people? or was there a different reason beyond our imagination or understanding? If you read the Surahs above, they explicity state that humans who broke the Sabbath and worshipped idols in ancient days were transformed to apes and swine. One could take the meaning as symbolic, but once these phrases are taken literally, we can clearly explain why we have ape-like remains of our ancestors such as Neandrathal Man, and why pork is an outlawed meat. If you believe in evolution as we did at one point, you may want to seriously take a look at all the scientific evidence which point to a very young earth which may only be 60,000 to 6,000 years old.

Isn't it interesting how modern science most commonly compares the fetus of a pig to the fetus of a human? The fetus of a pig is used because it is very similar to the fetus of a human during the early stages of development. The same applies for apes. As we understand it to date, the pig embryo is the most commonly used embryo in studying the human embryo. So were early humans turned into apes and swine?

Didn't Moses transform his staff into a snake in the presence of Pharoah through Yahweh's Will? If you understand all the evidence which points to a young earth and the evidence in physics that points to an instantaneous creation of the earth there is only one explanation for our ape-like ancestors. In consderation of the Surah's in the Qu'ran, it appears to be explicitely telling us that the origination of ape-like man and some pigs are early Sabbath-breaking humans. But of course, you also have to be pretty well convinced that the Torah, Bible or the Qu'ran are true scripture from the Lord of the Creation. If you believe in Yahshua Messiah's miracles then you should not have a problem with the fact the early peoples who did not follow Yahweh's commandments could have been literally transformed into apes and swine.

Caution: The discovery of this unusual passage in the Qu'ran in light of the Biblical premise that the earth is 6,000 years old and discovery of ape-like remains of humans must be approached with caution. Some believe the Qu'ran is a divine work of God yet others believe the Qu'ran is the work of satan. In the latter case, even if the Qu'ran is the work of satan, you must keep in mind that the art of satan is to mix truth with lies or "deceive." Therefore, this unusual passage in the Qu'ran indicating why there are ape-like remains must be approached with careful consideration. One could ask, did God turn early sabbath breakers into apes and swine or did satan genetically re-engineer man into swine and apes? Does scripture of the Bible support the idea that God could turn man into other forms? The answer is yes. See the Special Report link titled, "The Truth About Hell." The author shows how scriptural passages in the Bible indicate that those who go to hell are turned into a worm-like creature like their "father" satan. (rev 10/7/2000)

Sabbath Day:

Why are the Islamic, Jewish and Christian Holy days on different days of the week? For Moslems, it is understood to be on Friday evening. For Jews it is understood to start from Friday evening to Saturday evening. For Christians it is Sunday. This day is known as the Sabbath in Judaism. Yahweh designated this day as a day of rest in the Torah (first five books of the Bible) and it is to be kept holy (Exodus 20:8, Deut 5:12, Neh 13:22, Isaiah 58:13, Jer 17:22). We don't know at this time what the holy day is called for Moslems and Christians other than it's a day to attend a Mosque or Church and worship. There's is no doubt that the observance of this holy day is rooted in the observance of the Sabbath day in Judaism. But why on three different days?

Our investigation reveals that the Qu'ran references the Jewish Sabbath explicitely and there are no scriptural references in the Qu'ran to any other type of Sabbath day. Here is one Surah from the Quran which confirms the Sabbath, Surah 2:65. So where did the Moslems get Friday evening as a holy day? After reading the Qu'ran but not reviewing the Hadiths, we can only come to one conclusion- the Islamic world's observance of the Sabbath as Friday is the result of not fully respecting the Torah, a book the Qu'ran confirms. See the main page of the Special Report because this subject is cocovered in more detail as it relates to the Qu'ran.

How about professing Christians? How do they come up with Sunday as their holy day? Our Special Report covers this in detail in addition to various Christian sites. The evidence is clear that Sunday was a Roman pagan holiday and the original Christian observance of the Sabbath on Saturday was moved to Sunday. This was a result of political decision-making in the Roman Empire. See the Special Report for more details. Here is one verse from the Bible which stresses the importance of the Sabbath, Exodus 31:14.

We conclude that the real Sabbath is Friday evening through Saturday evening which is the "Jewish" Sabbath. It appears that the Jewish Sabbath overlaps the Moslem holy day. It may be that the ancient Moslems chose to "look away" from the Torah and Bible and therefore they were not able to establish the appropriate Sabbath day. Instead, they may have proclaimed Friday evening as the holy period to be honored once a week. The Moslem "sabbath" may also be the result of ancient political maneuvering. The Islamic nations were certainly not immune to pagan influences. Investigate this in more detail (rev 10/7/2000).

Does Yahweh Ordain Women to be Veiled and Covered?

Yahshua says in the Bible, Mark 9:47, "And if your eye causes you to sin, pluck it out; it is better for you to enter the kingdom of God with one eye than with two eyes to be thrown into hell." A passage in the Qu'ran (Surah TBD) basically says "it will be better for you" to wear veils and clothing which will not reveal the "bosom" or "ornaments" (directed at women). In 1 Timothy 2:9 it is written by Apostle Paul, "I also want women to dress modestly, with decency and propriety, not with braided hair or gold or pearls or expensive clothes, but with good deeds, appropriate for women who profess to worship God." We havn't really spent much time searching out the issue of women's dress according to scripture so you may want to investigate this for yourself.

Another related verses may include the verse from the Bible in the Ten Commandments which is to "not desire thy neighbor's wife." According to Christ Yahshuah, the desire alone could get one "thrown into hell." If we take into consideration these passages from the Bible and Qu'ran, it is evident that God ordained dress for women to be conservative. Investigate scripture regarding this on your own. It appears the most direct way to obey this Commandment of Yahweh, and minimize risk for breaking it, would be for women to be covered completely in modest dress. So where do you think our society stands based on this scripture by Apostle Paul which is seemingly supported by the Qu'ran and evident in the most conservative Christian, Jewish and Islamic societies? Something to contemplate about...

What is conservative? we encourage you to investigate Israeli and Arab cultures of the Middle East during Biblical times and in light of scripture.(rev 10/7/2000)

Is Yahweh Hierarchical? Ordaining Maidservants and Manservants in the Bible and Quran?

Throughout the Torah, Bible and Quran, believers or followers of Yahweh are ordained to rule over those who were not followers of Yahweh. Believing families will keep maidservants or manservants who were pagan captives as a result of war. Just as an owner of a football team has legal rights over the football player, under Yahweh's commandments, believing families have legal rights over their maidservants and manservants. Maidservants and manservants were paid for their labor, were to be treated as neighbors per the Ten Commandments which states to "love thy neighbor" and were given the absolute right to be set free after 7 years. The unfortunate circumstance which history shows is that despots and corrupt leaders turned this Law of Yahweh into slavery of men by race and other types of enslavement.

In light of the Torah, Bible and Qu'ran, it appears that the whole purpose of the system was to transform conquered pagan societies into societies that faithfully worshipped the Creator. Investigate this more on your own and read the Torah, Bible and Qu'ran for yourselves. Don't be surprised if your religious leaders are unable to address this or come up with an explanation denying this fundamental and pervasive theme througout the Torah, Bible and Qu'ran.

A few verses in the "New" Testament appear to abolish slavery and bring equality to men and women. Here is Col 3:11, "Here there is no Greek or Jew, circumcised or uncircumcised, barbarian, Scythian, slave or free, but Christ is all, and is in all," and Gal 3:26-29, "You are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus, for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, slave nor free, male nor female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus. If you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise." In light of these verses and other related verse, you are advised to read them in the context of the Torah for we have discovered that the meaning of "New" testament scripture must be understood in the context of the Torah. In this respect, the verses do not suddenly abolish slavery and make women equal to men in the physical world but make all men and women be it slave or free to claim their inheritance in the New Kingdom of God - New Jerusalem under Christ as Abraham's seed. Also keep in mind, if Apostle Paul intended these verses to mean that women now were made equal to men, he would not make the other statements he did (reference in the last topic above). Investigate this some more. (10/7/2000)

Four Holy Months in the Bible and Qu'ran:

The Bible references four holy months, and so does the Qu'ran. Could these be the same? Zechariah 8:18, states, "Again the word of the Lord Almighty came to me. This is what the Lord Almighty says: "The fasts of the fourth, fifth, seventh and tenth months will become joyful and glad occasions and happy festivals for Judah. Therefore love truth and peace." In the Qu'ran four holy months are referenced as "four holy months" (Surah 9:36) but not specified as to what they are. As a result one has to rely on the Torah and Bible which the Qu'ran confirms and references. Some may argue that one has to look to the Hadith's of the Prophet Muhammed, but keep in mind the Hadiths were written after Muhammed's death.

Because the Qu'ran does not go into detail on how to observe these four holy months, we can only conclude that these are the same four holy months observed in the Torah. If one thinks of the Qu'ran as an amendemnt to an original covenant- the Torah, then the Qu'ran does not need to go into details of how to observe the four holy months because the Torah already does this. So why don't Moslems observe the four holy months exactly like the Jews? We haven't investigated this yet but you may want to figure out the similarities in the rituals between Islamic observance of the four holy months and the Jewish observance of the four holy months. Also be sure to understand the three "red flags" discovered in the Qu'ran that contradict three distinguishing principles and themes of the Bible first. See the Special Report for more details.

Has the Islamic world mistakenly revised the observance of the four holy months by not respecting and understanding the Torah which is directly referenced and confirmed by the Qu'ran? It is evident that modern day Christianity observes certain "religious" holidays that are of pagan originations such as Christmas, Easter, etc. These observances cannot be found in Bible scripture. Has the Islamic world also inherited false doctrine? Are they right in the way they observe the four holy months described in the Torah and Qu'ran? Should Moslems be observing the four holy months per scripture in the Torah? Why is this important? Again, per Bible scripture, it is clear that after a period of time, Yahweh's wrath falls upon societies when they don't observe His commandments. The scary part is- there is a potential for an awaiting and possible sulfurous burning eternal Hell. Investigate this on your own. (10/7/2000).

Two Great Nations, Ishmael and Isaac:

One of the most critical conceptual differences between Christianity and Islam is the treatment of the descendents of Ishmael versus the treatment of the descendents of Isaac. It is the Islamic belief that Prophet Muhammed was the descendent of one of the 12 "tribes" of Ishmael. Be sure to read the Home Page article, "Christ and Prophet Muhammed Brothers?" Our investigation reveals that this point in Islam provides a strong foundation for the true revelation of the Qu'ran by Muhammed. The Book of Genesis reveals that both Ishmael and Isaac were sons of the Prophet Abraham and both were blessed greatly. Here are the verses that reveal Ishmael as Abraham's son in Genesis 17:20, 16:11, 16:15, 17:23, 17:25, 17:26. Here is one Bible verse that blesses Ishmael, Genesis 17:20. There are more and all you have to do is read Genesis to find them. Here are the Bible verses which bless Isaac: Genesis 17:19, Genesis 21:12.

In light of this, Muhammed would have brought man the Qu'ran in fulfillment of the blessing for Ishmael while Yahshua of Nazareth would have brought the Gospels in fulfillment for the blessing of Isaac. The picture of Prophet Muhammed as a descendent of Ishmael makes for a very valid point. We found that after reviewing the work of Mish'al ibn Abdullah in his book, "What Did Jesus Really Say," we saw how the Torah may have been corrupted by insertion and manipulation of text.

In his book, "What Did Jesus Really Say," Mish'al ibn Abdullah notes a potential insertion of text and manipulation in the Torah where the name of Isaac was inserted in place of Ishmael. Let's investigate. Genesis 16:16 states, "And Abram was fourscore and six years old, when Hagar bare Ishmael to Abram." Basically, here it says that Abram (Abraham) was eighty-six years old when Ishmael was born. At this point, Ishmael was the only son of Abraham. In Genesis 17:24-25 the words read, "And Abraham was ninety years old and nine, when he was circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin. And Ishmael his son was thirteen years old, when he was circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin." Genesis 21:5 states, "And Abraham was an hundred years old, when his son Isaac was born unto him." This basically says that Isaac was born when Abraham was 100 years old and Ishmael was thirteen years old. Now Genesis 22:2 reads, "And he said, Take now thy son, thine only son Isaac, who thou lovest, and get thee into the land of Moriah; and offer him there for a burnt offering upon one of the mountains which I will tell thee of." At this point, this last phrase is apparently incorrect as long as the name Isaac, instead of Ishmael, is in the sentence because Isaac was never Abraham's only son, Ishmael was. Isaac was born later as a second son. Is it possible that the text was manipulated in order to insert Isaac's name in place of Ishmael? This case can be argued based on a direct reading of the scriptures but there is more to this. Let's proceed. (Rev 10/8/2000)

Mish'al ibn Abduallah makes an extremely valid point that the purpose for this manipulation is to minimize the evidence that the descendents of Ishmael, which is the prophet Mohammed and the Arabs are a blessed nation of Yahweh. (See Mr. Abdullah's book on reasons why tribalism was so important in the ancient Middle East.) Mr. Abdullah points out that Genesis 22:16-18 is a blessing for Ishmael instead of Isaac. Genesis 22:16-18 is the verse following the verse where the name of Isaac was inserted for Ishmael according to Misha'al ibn Abdullah. For almost a year and even after 600 hours of investigating the end-times in light of Judaism, Christianity and Islam, Misha'al ibn Abdullah's point has been fully respected and as a result we were quite convinced that the Qu'ran had to somehow be the last book of the Bible but with limited corruption.

Now in October of 2000, we were able to investigate what the Qu'ran claims about Ishmael. If the Qu'ran only claimed that Muhammed was the descendent of Ishmael, this would be fine. However, the Qu'ran claims that it was Ishmael that was offered up as a sacrifice before God in the famous Bible & Islamic story about how Abraham was asked by God to sacrifice his son as a test of faith. In light of two other fundamental "red flags" in the Qu'ran (see Special Report) and this new fundamental "red flag" in the Qu'ran, we now have lost confidence that the Qu'ran is a work of divine origin from Yahweh. Why? because the scripture of the Bible reveals without a doubt that it was Isaac that was offered up for sacrifice by Abraham when God tested Abraham's faith.

The point is Isaac is a type of "Christ" in symbolic form. Notice that it was Isaac who carried the pile of wood on his shoulders to the top of Mount Moriah just as Christ had to carry his wooden cross upon his shoulders up to Mount Moriah. There are other symbolic literary relationships and discoveries that prove beyond a doubt that it was Isaac who was offered for sacrifice and not Ishmael. For more on interesting literary relationships regarding Isaac as a type of "Christ" see Chuck Missler's site, "Koinonia House Online" and make sure you review his tape series on Revelation and Genesis. Also be sure to review Michael John Rood's video series on the Prophecies in the Feasts of the Lord (spring) at www.6001.com

So can Isaac be regarded as the only son in light of the explicit scriptural passages in the Bible that prove otherwise? The answer is no, Ishmael is, but a point is made that one must look beyond the explicit scriptural passage in this case and look to the God's definition of an "only son." We learned later that when the term "only son" is used it is Yahweh's intention to refer to Isaac because Isaac is born of a covenant by God to Abraham. At first, this argument may not seem convincing and the result of hypocrisy but in light of the other verses that reveal that Isaac is a type of "Christ" or a symbolic representation of Christ, we have to be convinced that Isaac was the "only son" of Abraham in regards to Isaac being born of a covenant Yahweh made with Abraham. Investigate some more on your own.

Are the Arabs (Ishmaelites) still blessed? The answer is yes they are per the Book of Genesis. But how will this blessing reveal itself?

Blessings for Ishmael & Isaac?

For over a year into this investigation, we had no doubt that oil is the physical blessing in the verse "all the nations of the earth be blessed" in Genesis 22:18? Without oil, there is no commerce, there is no technology. Oil is a fundamental ingredient in manufacturing, transportation, cooking of food (Russia will testify to this) and even the manufacturing of microchips ! Most of the world's oil supplies are all in the Middle East, in Islamic nations. A Prophecy Club video claims that the biggest oil field in the world is on the Southwest end of the Dead Sea- Israel's territory. Remember Israel is the descendent of Isaac. The conflict in Chechnya is about oil. The Islamic peoples in Chechnya are fighting for continued control of this oil. We heard in the news that this oil reserve is enormous- almost in proportion to some of the largest in the Middle East. Investigate this on your own.

But can this oil also be a curse? According to Bill Klimek of Kehilat Beth Miqlat (see Special Report for link), the oil that is currently deposited underneath the earth are the remains of the animals, people and plant life in the "Days of Noah" before the Great Flood. If this is true, oil is a curse because the modern day world is now "resurrecting" this "spirit" of the people in the "Days of Noah" by burning the fossil fuels. The Bible also tells us that the "end of day" will be as if in the "Days of Noah." Is the burning of fossil fuels a blessing? In consideration of the devastation on the ozone layer and pollution of the air, seas and land, it appears that burning fossil fuels are more a curse than a blessing. If this is the case than what is the blessing that Ishmael & Isaac received? Investigate this some more.

The Christian belief regarding the blessing is it was Yahshua of Nazareth and at this point (October 2000), in light of the three fundamental "red flags" identified in Qu'ranic scripture, we have to agree that it was Yahshua of Nazareth who was this blessing for all the people of the world for the atonment of sins and salvation of eternal life.

Is Muhammed a blessing? History shows that Mohammed brought positive changes by ridding society of racism, tribalism, feudalism and bringing increased respect and decent treatment of women. You may want to investigate the history of Muhammed on your own. If the Qu'ran did not have the three fundamental "red flags" we identified in this Special Report, one could easily accept Muhammed as a blessing to many nations. Unfortunately, because of the three "red flags" we find it difficult now in October 2000 to accept the Qu'ran as a divine revelation from Yahweh but instead a super-natural book of origins that is not from Yahweh. Please see the conclusion of this Special Report for more details. For about a year, from April 1999 to September 2000 we supported the Qu'ran as a super-natural book with divine origins from Yahweh that could have been the last book of the Bible. In this scenario, one has to accept corruption of scripture in the Qu'ran for specific passages that directly contradict pervasive themes and principles in scripture of the Bible.

A Day With The Lord Is Like A Thousands Years per the Bible and Quran:

Both the Bible and the Quran say, "A day with the lord is like a thousand years." Here is the verse from the Bible, (TBD). Here is the verse from the Quran (Penguin Classics translation by N.J. Dawood), Surah 32:1-6, "It was Allah who in six days created the heavens and the earth and all that lies between them, and then ascended His Throne. You have no guardian or intercessor (mediator) besides Him. Will you not take heed? He governs the creation from heaven and earth. And in the end it will ascend to Him in one day, a day whose space is a thousand years by your reckoning."

In the same Surah, Christ is described as the portent to the Hour of Doom. We think this may confirm that when Christ returns around 2007, the Day of Judgement. Here is the Quranic passage describing Christ Yahshuah as the "portent (portal) of the Hour of Doom." Surah 43:59-61 (Translaton by N.J. Dawood, Penguin Classics) explains, "Jesus was no more than a mortal whom We favoured and made an example to the Israelites. Had it been Our will We could have replaced you with angels to succeed you on the earth. He is a portent of the Hour of Doom. Have no doubt about its coming and follow Me." When Yahshua told his disciples to "follow me...I am the way," did he mean exactly what the Quran says? That he is the "grand gate (portal)" and a "sign of coming calamity (portent)?".

In Dr. Maurice Bucaille's book, "The Bible, Qu'ran and Science" he notes that the 'six days' of creation should have been translated to say 'six periods'. In the Qu'ran a period is ten thousand years. In both the Qu'ran and the Bible "a day with the Lord" is 1,000 days in the reckoning of God's time. Whether the verse reads six periods or six days, if someone wanted to consider the meaning of the verses, it would indicate that the universe could be six thousand years or even sixty thousand years old. However, take a look at the scientific evidence that shows the young age of the earth, the evidence for the instantaneous creation of the earth in the Special Report.